Using the Bible to insult people

Originally posted by FMF
You should ask josephw. He is the poster who cited James 4:4. What does he think "friendship with the world" means? He needs to explain whether he has determined divesgeester is "an enemy of God". Or Suzianne. Or you. Or lemon lime. But most of all josephw.

No i am asking you, surely you must know if you are asking questions whose meaning hinges on understanding the terms in the passage or are we to conclude that you have been using terms which form the basis of arguments that you have not the slightest idea what they mean?

Originally posted by FMF
How is James 4:4 relevant to divegeester making a quip about Grampy Bobby's copy pasting?

Missing the entire point of James 4:1-4:6.

Originally posted by Suzianne
Missing the entire point of James 4:1-4:6.

There seems to be an echo in here.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
As has been pointed out James was clearly speaking to fellow believers making the insinuation that its somehow not proper or moral or whatever else to confront other Christians when they espouse values that are contrary to Christian principles utterly absurd. Perhaps its once again more luke warm wateriness that has aroused your sensibilities, the k ...[text shortened]... ones own sensibilities that GB mentioned elsewhere and which marks your entire posting history.

Do you believe that divegeester has made himself into "an enemy of God"?

Originally posted by divegeester
The point is not the meaning of James 4:4, it's how and why the scripture was used to condem another Christian because josephw saw them exchanging a quip with a non Christian about another christian.

Oh, I see.

And now the point is not the meaning of James 4:4 after all. Then why all the hyperbole?

So, as I thought.

You and FMF are dragging us all through the mud of your own narcissism because, AGAIN, someone actually had the bad taste to disagree with you.

That's ALWAYS why you throw hissy fits!

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
No i am asking you, surely you must know if you are asking questions whose meaning hinges on understanding the terms in the passage or are we to conclude that you have been using terms which form the basis of arguments that you have not the slightest idea what they mean?

jospehw cited the verse. He needs to explain it. He needs to explain how he thinks it applies to divegeester and why divegeester's quip to Wolfgang59 triggered it.

Originally posted by FMF
Do you believe that divegeester has made himself into "an enemy of God"?

In order for us to determine whether divesgeester is 'an enemy of God', we need to qualify it and the only way we can do that is to understand the terms in the passage, so you will tell us, what does , 'friendship with the world mean?'. Otherwise your question makes absolutely no sense.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
In order for us to determine whether divesgeester is 'an enemy of God', we need to qualify it and the only way we can do that is to understand the terms in the passage, so you will tell us, what does , 'friendship with the world mean?'. Otherwise your question makes absolutely no sense.

josephw needs to explain it ~ he cited it ~ I didn't.

Originally posted by FMF
jospehw cited the verse. He needs to explain it. He needs to explain how he thinks it applies to divegeester and why divegeester's quip to Wolfgang59 triggered it.

No you need to explain it otherwise your question can be dismissed on the basis that its taken out of context and has no bearing on what the author or Joseph for that matter actually meant.

Originally posted by Suzianne
You and FMF are dragging us all through the mud of your own narcissism because, AGAIN, someone actually had the bad taste to [b]disagree with you. [/b]

Why was it necessary for josephw to cite James 4:4 in order to demonstrate that he disagreed with divegeester?

Originally posted by FMF
josephw needs to explain it ~ he cited it ~ I didn't.

You seem capable of citing the latter part of the verse and using it with understanding, why can you not cite the preceding clause which qualifies the statement? Its most strange, was the passage torn from your Bible and only the latter clause remained?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
No you need to explain it otherwise your question can be dismissed on the basis that its taken out of context and has no bearing on what the author or Joseph for that matter actually meant.

On the contrary, josephw needs to explain the context and what he actually meant. I have been asking him to.

Originally posted by FMF
On the contrary, josephw needs to explain the context and what he actually meant. I have been asking him to.

But you have been using a phrase from the verse, if you understand that clause why cant you tell us about the preceding clause which qualifies the statement that you have been using presumably with some understanding? You are acting very strangely.

Originally posted by FMF
On the contrary, josephw needs to explain the context and what he actually meant. I have been asking him to.

And he's been rightfully ignoring you and your twisted interrogation.

Rather humorous, given the passage you won't even read.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
But you have been using a phrase from the verse, if you understand that clause why cant you tell us about the preceding clause which qualifies the statement that you have been using presumably with some understanding? You are acting very strangely.

I quoted it in full here Thread 167360 top of page 14 but josephw still wouldn't explain.